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IS BAPTISM ESSENTIAL FOR SALVATION?
Baptism is a vital topic. In the view of many Bible students, baptism is an
essential part of our salvation. But many denominational doctrines are
opposed to this, claiming that baptism is, at best, merely "an outward
sign of an inward grace." In this view it is an outward testimony to the
world that one has previously accepted Christ and has been saved before
baptism. And there are some denominations that have done away with baptism
altogether, evidently considering it of no value, such as the Salvation
Army and the Christian Science Church.
Why is this such an important topic? If Christ has taught us through his
revealed Word that baptism is essential to salvation, then one cannot hope
to enter heaven without it. Thus one can see why this is so important.
Let us consider what the Scriptures have to say on the matter. We will not
go to human opinions, church creeds or Biblical commentaries, but only to
the Word of God.
"Now there was a man of the Pharisees, named Nicodemus, a ruler of the Jews;
this man came to Him by night, and said to Him, "Rabbi, we know that You
have come from God as a teacher; for no one can do these signs that You do
unless God is with him." Jesus answered and said to him, "Truly, truly, I
say to you, unless one is born again, he cannot see the kingdom of God."
Nicodemus said to Him, "How can a man be born when he is old? He cannot
enter a second time into his mother's womb and be born, can he?" Jesus
answered, "Truly, truly, I say to you, unless one is born of water and the
Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God". (John 3:1-5)
In this passage, Christ has plainly stated that one cannot enter into the
kingdom of God without this new birth of "water" and "the Spirit." Since we
are focusing on what the water is, we will leave consideration of the
meaning of "the Spirit" for another time. There are basically three views
as to what the water is:
(1) that it is the water in the mother's womb at the time of birth;
(2) that it refers to the Word (the Bible), and
(3) that it is baptism.
As to referring to the water in a natural birth, we must observe that a
man (an adult) must be born again of both "water" and "the Spirit." Thus the
context does not agree that this is the water associated with natural birth.
With respect to the second view, that water refers to the Bible, there is
strong evidence that being born again of "the Spirit" has reference to the
Holy Spirit's influence upon our new birth through the revealed Word (I
Peter 1:22-23, etc.). So if "water" means "Word," then Christ is saying
that we must be born again of word and word. And that wouldn't make much
sense. Furthermore, if the Lord had meant to say "Word," why did he say
"water?" The only conclusion that fits the context is that this water is
baptism. To further support this, we refer to Romans 6:3-5, where baptism
is clearly depicted as a birth to a new life.
"Or do you not know that all of us who have been baptized into Christ
Jesus have been baptized into His death? Therefore we have been buried
with Him through baptism into death, in order that as Christ was raised
from the dead through the glory of the Father, so we too might walk in
newness of life. For if we have become united with Him in the likeness
of His death, certainly we shall be also in the likeness of His
resurrection."
Do you see that we are "raised from the dead" in baptism that we might
"walk in newness of life?" That fits exactly the idea expressed in John 3
in Christ's conversation with Nicodemus--"new birth" equals "new life."
Next we turn to Mark 16:16, as Christ is giving his final word to the
disciples before he leaves to return to heaven. "He who has believed
and has been baptized shall be saved; but he who has disbelieved shall
be condemned." How could it be said in a plainer way? Consider an
illustration. "He who has bought a ticket and boarded the train shall
reach his destination; but he who has not bought a ticket shall be
stuck at home." Was it necessary for the man to have bought the ticket
in order to reach his destination? Obviously. Would we also have to say,
"He who has not bought a ticket and not boarded the train shall be stuck
at home?" We can easily see that "not boarded the train" would be
unnecessary, since he would not board the train without the ticket.
Now, what do we understand Christ to have said? Could it be read,
"He who has believed and has not been baptized shall be saved?" Can
we take such liberty with the words of our Lord? Consider something
that Luke said concerning the Pharisees:
"But the Pharisees and the lawyers rejected God's purpose for themselves,
not having been baptized by John" (Luke 7:30).
Now, if these religious leaders "rejected God's purpose" when they refused
to be baptized by John the Baptist, then what is our situation if we
"reject God's purpose" in refusing to honor the necessity of the command
of Christ?
In looking at the book of Acts, we see thousands and thousands of people
being baptized. This began at the beginning of the preaching of the
gospel--the day of Pentecost. As Peter and the other apostles convinced
their audience that the man whom they had crucified was indeed the Son
of God, many hearers were convicted of sin, and asked what they might
do to remove their guilt. Notice the narrative in Acts 2:36-38:
"Therefore let all the house of Israel know for certain that God has
made Him both Lord and Christ-- this Jesus whom you crucified." Now when
they heard this, they were pierced to the heart, and said to Peter and the
rest of the apostles, "Brethren, what shall we do?" And Peter said to them,
"Repent, and let each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for
the forgiveness of your sins; and you shall receive the gift of the Holy
Spirit."
The result of this is seen in v. 41:
"So then, those who had received his word were baptized; and there were
added that day about three thousand souls."
Note that those who "received his word" were baptized. Is it safe to assume
that those who were not baptized did not "receive his word?" We observe that
that very day some 3,000 were baptized. That is contrary to denominational
practices today that may make one wait weeks, months, or even years before
they are allowed to be baptized, or which would eliminate baptism altogether.
Some try to get around the force of Acts 2:38 by claiming that Peter was
teaching that the real meaning is "Repent, and let each of you be baptized
in the name of Jesus Christ BECAUSE OF the forgiveness of your sins." In the
English language, "for" can have different meanings. "I went shopping for a
new coat," means "in order to obtain" a new coat. But "I went to jail for
bank robbery," means that I went to jail because of a crime I committed.
So, what does Acts 2:38 mean? There are three things to consider.
(1) Can we find a similar passage where the meaning is without question;
(2) does the original Greek of the New Testament give us any help;
(3) Does the context of v. 38 gives us any clues?
(1) As to a similar passage, we note Matthew 26:27, 28, where Christ is
instituting the Lord's Supper:
"And when He had taken a cup and given thanks, He gave it to them,
saying, "Drink from it, all of you; for this is My blood of the covenant,
which is poured out for many for forgiveness of sins."
The point to be made here is that we have the same wording in both
passages. In Acts it says baptism is "for forgiveness of sins," while in
Matthew it says that Christ's blood was poured out "for forgiveness of
sins." Do we believe that Christ shed his blood because sins had already
been forgiven? Obviously not! Therefore it does not seem likely that
baptism was commanded because sins have already been forgiven.
(2) In the original Greek, the words are identical in both passages.
Furthermore, the Greek word "eis," which is translated "for," may also be
translated "in order to" or "unto," and carries the idea of "with a view
towards." It is never translated "because of."
(3) As to the context of the verse, we note that Peter commanded two
things: "Repent, and let each of you be baptized..." There is a little
word that connects the two commands-"and." The rules of grammar tell us
that "and" is "a coordinate conjunction connecting words, phrases or
clauses of equal rank." Thus repent and be baptized are equally important
in the verse, and both would be qualified by the same modifiers. Now,
if "be baptized" is to be done because sins were already forgiven, then
the command to "repent" would also be because sins had already been
forgiven. That conclusion is ludicrous. How can the word "for" have
two different meanings in the same verse? Nowhere in the Scriptures
are we taught that sins are forgiven before we even repent. Thus the
quibbles made against the clear meaning of Acts 2:38 do not hold up in the
light of investigation.
In the eighth chapter of Acts, we have the story of an Ethiopian government
official who was taught the Word of God by Philip the evangelist. Philip
was teaching this man as they rode in the eunuch's chariot.
"And Philip opened his mouth, and beginning from this Scripture he
preached Jesus to him. And as they went along the road they came to some
water; and the eunuch said, 'Look! Water! What prevents me from being
baptized?' And Philip said, 'If you believe with all your heart, you
may.' And he answered and said, 'I believe that Jesus Christ is the
Son of God.' And he ordered the chariot to stop; and they both went
down into the water, Philip as well as the eunuch; and he baptized him.
And when they came up out of the water, the Spirit of the Lord snatched
Philip away; and the eunuch saw him no more, but went on his way
rejoicing" (Acts 8:35-39).
There are at least three points to make from this narrative.
(1) Philip "preached Jesus," to this man, which then led to the question
about baptism. Obviously, "preaching Jesus" includes preaching baptism,
or else the eunuch would not have known to ask about it.
(2) It was water that was the element in which the baptism took place.
Some try to argue that the baptism commanded in the Great Commission is
Holy Spirit baptism, or baptism in fire, or maybe even something else,
but this passage, coupled with Acts 10:47, John 3:3-5; Acts 22:16; I
Peter 3:20-21, etc., show that water is the element under consideration.
(3) Again we note that baptism was an immersion in water. It would be
somewhat foolish to go "down into the water" just to pour or sprinkle some
water on the head.
Turning to Acts 22:16, we find the apostle Paul retelling the story of his
conversion. The Lord encountered Saul (as he was then known) in a blinding
light on the road to Damascus. When Paul was convinced that Jesus was the
Son of God, he was instructed to go into the city to a certain place
where he would receive instructions. In time Ananias came to him with
the word of the Lord:
"And now why do you delay? Arise, and be baptized, and wash away your
sins, calling on His name."
When did the "washing away of sins" take place, before, or after, the
baptism? Note that Paul had believed three days before, yet was still in
his sins when Ananias came to him. And no, the Bible does not teach that
the water of baptism literally takes away sin as it takes away dirt. But
God teaches that he takes away our sins when we conform to his will at the
point of baptism.
Perhaps an Old Testament story may serve to illustrate the part water has
to play in our salvation. In II Kings 5, an army captain came to the prophet
Elisha to be healed of his leprosy. He was told to go wash in the Jordan
River seven times, and his health would be restored. At first he was
furious at such a dumb instruction, but at the urging of a servant, he
repented and went to the river. When he came up the seventh time, his
skin was like that of a little child. Now, what cleansed him? It was
not the water, but God, who bestowed his grace and mercy upon Naaman.
But would he have been cleansed if he had not obeyed by going into the
river? Similarly, the water of baptism does not cleanse us from sin.
God does that through his grace and mercy. But God has connected water
and cleansing from sin in the same way that he connected water with
cleansing from leprosy. The truth is that our salvation is a combination
of grace and an obedient faith.
Turning next to the letter to the church at Rome, we consider a passage
to which we have already made reference, Romans 6:3-5:
"Or do you not know that all of us who have been baptized into Christ Jesus
have been baptized into His death? Therefore we have been buried with Him
through baptism into death, in order that as Christ was raised from the
dead through the glory of the Father, so we too might walk in newness
of life. For if we have become united with Him in the likeness of His
death, certainly we shall be also in the likeness of His resurrection."
There are two significant matters to consider here.
(1) Baptism is a burial in water, not a sprinkling of water. Although
the "mode" of baptism is not the subject of this treatise, it is noteworthy
that the Bible itself claims that baptism is a "burial," and that it is a
depiction of the death, burial and resurrection of Christ. It is a fact
that the definition of the Greek word "baptizo" literally means "to dip,
plunge, submerge." And Bible students and commentators from all religious
viewpoints agree that immersion in water was the practice of the early
church.
(2) Note also that one is baptized into Christ. If one is saved before
baptism, then one is saved before one is in Christ. But that is impossible,
for salvation is found only in Christ, in a spiritual relationship with him.
"Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who has blessed
us with every spiritual blessing in the heavenly places in Christ"
(Ephesians. 1:3).
Can we find any passage teaching that one can be saved apart from Christ?
There is no such passage. Therefore, with confidence we can say that one
cannot be saved without being baptized into Christ in the manner that the
Scriptures teach--by immersion, a burial in water.
In writing to the church at Corinth, Paul dealt with some serious problems.
The first thing he tackled was the division that was evident, as some were
more concerned about following men than simply following Christ.
"Now I exhort you, brethren, by the name of our Lord Jesus Christ, that
you all agree, and there be no divisions among you, but you be made complete
in the same mind and in the same judgment. For I have been informed
concerning you, my brethren, by Chloe's people, that there are quarrels
among you. Now I mean this, that each one of you is saying, "I am of
Paul," and "I of Apollos," and "I of Cephas," and "I of Christ." Has
Christ been divided? Paul was not crucified for you, was he? Or were
you baptized in the name of Paul?" (I Cor. 1:10-13).
As Paul was chiding them, he reminded them of two significant things,
namely
(1) that Paul had not been crucified for them, and
(2) that they had not been baptized in the name of, or by the authority
of, Paul.
What lessons can we draw from this? Among other things, we can note
that if one could rightly claim to be "of Christ," there were two things
necessary:
(1) Christ had to have been crucified for them, and
(2) they had to have been baptized by the authority of Christ.
Therefore, if one has not been baptized according to the teaching of
Christ, he cannot in truth belong to Christ--cannot be "of Christ."
As we continue our search through the Holy Scriptures to find teaching
about baptism, we come across Galatians 3:26, 27:
"For you are all sons of God through faith in Christ Jesus. For all
of you who were baptized into Christ have clothed yourselves with Christ."
People become "sons of God" through "the faith," i.e., the system or body
of faith that God gave (the word "the" is in the original Greek). The
location of our sonship is "in Christ Jesus," which should be obvious,
for salvation is in Christ. But when does this sonship take place? When
do we become "clothed with Christ?" It is at the point of baptism! If
someone disputes this, then they can argue with the inspired apostle
Paul. That's what he said about it, under direction of the Holy Spirit.
And also note that the expression, "baptized into Christ" is the same
that was used in Romans 6:3-5.
There is an interesting passage in Colossians that gives a perspective
on baptism that differs from what many denominations say about baptism.
Many claim that baptism is a work, and since we are not saved by works,
therefore baptism has nothing to do with our salvation. But note the
wording in Col. 2:12:
"...having been buried with Him in baptism, in which you were also
raised up with Him through faith in the working of God, who raised Him
from the dead."
There are two points to consider here:
(1) We again note that baptism is called a burial, not a sprinkling, and
(2) baptism is called a "working of God," rather than a working of man.
Baptism has to do with our "faith in the working of God," who raised us up
with Christ in the act of baptism. Question: Can one be saved without
this "working of God?" Note also that Christ called faith itself a
"work" that is approved of God (John 6:29). If it is true that we are
saved without any kind of work or obedience, then we are saved without
faith. Who can believe that? You see, faith or believing is something
that man does, in considering the evidence and drawing a conclusion.
Titus 3:4-7 has some interesting points to consider.
"But when the kindness of God our Savior and His love for mankind
appeared, He saved us, not on the basis of deeds which we have done
in righteousness, but according to His mercy, by the washing of
regeneration and renewing by the Holy Spirit, whom He poured out
upon us richly through Jesus Christ our Savior, that being justified
by His grace we might be made heirs according to the hope of eternal life."
Please consider what is affirmed in this passage.
(1) We are not saved by works of human merit, "but"
(2) we are saved "by the washing of regeneration and renewing by
the Holy Spirit. Therefore
(3) the "washing of regeneration" is not a work of human merit.
(4) Being saved "through the washing of regeneration" is equated with
"being justified by His grace." What is the "washing of regeneration and
renewing by the Holy Spirit?" Do you see a parallel with the statement of
Christ in John 3:3-5, where Nicodemus was told to be "born again of water
and the Spirit?"
"washing of regeneration" "renewing by the Holy Spirit" (Titus 3:5)
"born again of water" "and the Spirit" (John 3:5)
Also note in the passage in Titus that the "washing of regeneration"
stands in contrast to the "deeds...done in righteousness" or the works of
human merit. So the Bible itself denies that baptism is a work that we
do in order to earn salvation, in spite of what some men would claim.
A clear passage dealing with baptism is I Peter 3:20, 21, as Peter writes
about the preaching that was done to the people in Noah's day
"who once were disobedient, when the patience of God kept waiting in the
days of Noah, during the construction of the ark, in which a few, that is,
eight persons, were brought safely through the water. And corresponding to
that, baptism now saves you-not the removal of dirt from the flesh, but an
appeal to God for a good conscience-through the resurrection of Jesus
Christ."
Now, many "preachers" say that "baptism does not save us," but the Word of
God clearly states, "baptism now saves you." Which are we to believe--God's
Word, or the word of men? Peter is making the point that Noah's salvation
by water is a figure of our salvation by water. As Noah was separated
from the destruction that was in the world as the water floated the ark,
so we are separated from the destruction of sin by the water of baptism.
And note, as has been shown before, that it is "not the removal of dirt
from the flesh" to which the passage refers, but rather it is "an appeal
to God for a good conscience." My appeal to God is after baptism, not
before. In a sense God says, "If you do this, I will take away your
sins." I then comply with God's will, and then I appeal to God as
I present myself as one who has obeyed his will. Is that difficult
to understand? According to this passage, does baptism save us, or
not save us?
Written by: Jefferson David Tant
From: Thoughts On Baptism
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